direct and indirect objects

Question

there is a grammatical point which says an indirect object never comes without a direct one. So, if there is no direct object, we should change the indirect obj to a prepositional obj. for example:

He sang me a song —-> correct
He sang me. → incorrect
He sang to me. —-> correct

so: 
She sent me an email
She sent to me.

is it correct to say “she sent to me”? If not, why?

Answer 1

Hi,

No it is not ; because the verb send is a transitive verb.

Comments

sing is a transitive verb as well.

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Yes , the verb "sing" is both a transitive and an intransitive verb but the verb "send" is a transitive verb which in the sentence you asked in your example "She sent to me." it is not correct , as it will form a question in the addressee's mind as to "What did she send to you?"